A Concise Exegetical Defense of "Particular Redemption" in the Book of John
At the end of His ministry on earth, before He goes to the cross for sinners, Jesus' utters his High Priestly prayer in John 17. He begins by praying, “Father, the hour has come; glorify your Son that the Son may glorify you, since you have given him authority over all flesh, to give eternal life to all whom you have GIVEN him.(John 17:1-2): In verse 9 Jesus uses the same phrase "GIVEN ME" when He says "I am praying for them. I am not praying for the world but for those whom you have GIVEN ME, for they are yours" (John 17:9) So He makes a clear distinction of those He prays for and those He does not before going to the cross for them .... and of these same people in verse 19 Jesus prays "And for their sake I consecrate myself, that they also may be sanctified in truth." That is incredible ... He sanctifies Himself so all those the Father has GIVEN HIM will also be sanctified ... and in verses 20 & 24 he establishes that he further is speaking NOT ONLY of the immediate disciples but of others who the father has "given him" (v 24) who hear the apostles word. There again is that patten of language of "given me" spoken again about those outside his immediate circle. This exegetically demonstrates the truth of particular redemption, especially since Jesus is praying for all those the Father has given him just prior to going to the cross to sanctify them.
In sum, Jesus sanctified himself for "all that the Father gave him" that they they also might be sanctified. It does not get any clearer than that. (John 17:9, 19, 20 & 24)
Who is the "they" that Jesus "sanctifies" in John 17:19? (see v. 9 & 24)
Is the "sanctification" of "those the Father has given him" part of Jesus redemptive work? Or is it non-redemptive?
If Christ begins our sanctification, will He infallibly bring it to pass? (See John 6:37)